Joshua brought up the question in the thread title tonight in our Twentieth Zoom, and I think it's a great question.
Whichever way one wants to answer, Yes or No, the discussion should bring greater clarity to the meaning of - PD19. "Infinite time contains no greater pleasure than limited time, if one measures, by reason, the limits of pleasure."
What do you think. Would Epicurus endorse this variation of PD19, and if so how would he answer it, and with what kind of explanation?